Question/insight #19: "My question concerns the comment on Matt 3:16 in the second section, where you say that "unto him" should be omitted from the KJV. Equivalent text is found in both the NRSV and the TEV, however, and the phrase provides a significant restriction on the meaning of the sentence. So, what is the meaning of the comment? If it should be omitted from the KJV, should it be omitted from the other translations as well? " (8/28/98)

Response #19:

Regarding Matthew 3:16, Bruce Metzger, who chaired the translation committee for the NRSV and is on the United Bible Societies' Greek New Testament Committee, comments on that verse A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, Second Edition (New York: UBS, 1994, page 9):

The joining of [Sinaiticus, 4th Century], [Vaticanus, 5th Century], the Old Syriac [Third/Fourth Century], and Irenaeus [2nd Century] in support of the shorter reading makes a very strong combination, which might well be regarded as the original text. On the other hand, however, it is possible that copyists, not understanding the force of auto [Greek, meaning 'to him'], omitted the word as unnecessary. In order to show this balance of possibilities the Committee [the UBS Greek New Testament Committee] enclosed auto within square brackets.

The textual commentary provided on the BibleTexts website is consistent with the majority conclusions of the UBS Greek New Testament Committee. Apparently the NRSV and TEV translators chose to go with the minority conclusion or concluded that "to him" was implied by the context.